In today’s press release, the Securities and Exchange Commission announced the adoption of rules and amendments to require certain documents, including Form ADV-NR, filed by investment advisers, institutional investment managers, and certain other entities to be filed or submitted electronically. Form ADV-NR is the appointment of agent for service of process by a non-resident general partner or a non-resident managing agent of any investment adviser (domestic or non-resident), including exempt reporting advisers. The amendments also make technical amendments to modernize Form 13F and enhance the information provided. The new rules and form amendments will be effective 60 days after publication in the Federal Register. The amendments to Form 13F will be effective on January 3, 2023.
The SEC today proposed rule amendments to update beneficial ownership reporting under 1934 Act Sections 13(d) and 13(g).
The proposed amendments to Regulation 13D-G would
- accelerate the filing deadlines for Schedule 13D beneficial ownership reports from 10 days to five days and require that amendments be filed within one business day (which has been the practice for amendments since the 1985 Cooper Labs SEC decision);
- generally accelerate the filing deadlines for Schedule 13G beneficial ownership reports (which differ based on the type of filer);
- accelerate the filing deadlines for Schedule 13G amendments
- expand the application of Regulation 13D-G to certain derivative securities;
- clarify the circumstances under which two or more persons have formed a “group” that would be subject to beneficial ownership reporting obligations; provide new exemptions to permit certain persons to communicate and consult with one another, jointly engage issuers, and execute certain transactions without being subject to regulation as a “group;” and
- require that Schedules 13D and 13G be filed using a structured, machine-readable data language.
The Fact Sheet summarizing the proposed amendments:
Text of proposed rule amendments:
Please contact your Pillsbury investment management attorney with any questions.
The Securities and Exchange Commission today voted to propose amendments to Form PF, the confidential reporting form for certain SEC-registered investment advisers to private funds. The proposed amendments are designed to enhance the Financial Stability Oversight Council’s (FSOC) ability to assess systemic risk as well as to bolster the Commission’s regulatory oversight of private fund advisers and its investor protection efforts in light of the growth of the private fund industry.
The proposed amendments would require current reporting for large hedge fund advisers and advisers to private equity funds. These advisers would file reports within one business day of events that indicate significant stress at a fund that could harm investors or signal risk in the broader financial system. The proposed amendments would provide the Commission and FSOC with more timely information to analyze and assess risks to investors and the markets more broadly.
The proposal also would decrease the reporting threshold for large private equity advisers from $2 billion to $1.5 billion in private equity fund assets under management. Lowering the threshold would result in reporting on Form PF that continues to provide robust data on a sizable portion of the private equity industry. Finally, the proposal would require more information regarding large private equity funds and large liquidity funds to enhance the information used for risk assessment and the Commission’s regulatory programs.
Most 3(c)(1) private equity and hedge funds are impacted; exempt venture capital funds are not impacted.
Effective August 16, 2021, the dollar thresholds specified in the definition of “qualified client” under Rule 205-3 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (“Advisers Act”) will increase (i) from $2.1 million to $2.2 million (net worth test) and (ii) from $1 million to $1.1 million (assets under management (AUM) test). Clients that enter into investment advisory agreements (and existing fund investors that make additional fund investments) in reliance on the net worth test prior to the effective date will be “grandfathered” in under the prior net worth threshold. The increases are made pursuant to a five-year inflation adjustment required by section 205(e) of the Advisers Act (section 419 of the Dodd-Frank Act). (The most recent prior change was effective August 15, 2016.)
Section 205(a)(1) of the Advisers Act generally restricts an investment adviser from entering into, extending, renewing, or performing any investment advisory contract that provides for compensation to the adviser based on a share of capital gains on, or capital appreciation of, the funds of a client (“performance compensation prohibition”). Rule 205-3 of the Advisers Act provides a limited exemption from the performance compensation prohibition and permits investment advisers to receive performance-based compensation (incentive allocations, carry, carried interest, performance fee etc.) from “qualified clients.”
After August 16, a “qualified client” is a person that:
(i) has at least $1.1 million in assets under management with the investment adviser immediately after entering into the advisory contract (AUM test); or
(ii) has a net worth (in the case of a natural person client, together with assets held jointly with a spouse) that the investment adviser reasonably believes is in excess of $2.2 million immediately prior to entering into the advisory contract (net worth test).
As a reminder, the value of a natural person’s primary residence must not be included in net worth; indebtedness secured by the person’s primary residence, up to the estimated fair market value of the primary residence at the time the investment advisory contract is entered into, need not be counted as a liability toward net worth (except that debt acquired or a loan amount increased within 60 days before investment or contract execution date must be counted); and indebtedness that is secured by the person’s primary residence in excess of the estimated fair market value of the residence also must be counted as a liability.
A qualified client also includes both a “qualified purchaser” as defined in section 2(a)(51)(A) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended (the “Investment Company Act”), and an investment adviser’s “knowledgeable employees.” The newly revised definition will, therefore, affect certain private investment funds that rely on Section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act (but not those funds relying on Section 3(c)(7)) and separately managed accounts that charge performance fees.
Advisory clients that established an advisory relationship (signed a contract) before the effective date of the new thresholds will be “grandfathered” in under the prior net worth threshold. Investors in a private fund are considered, for these purposes, a client of the adviser (fund manager). Therefore, future investments in a fund by the same investor who first invested in that fund before August 16 also will be grandfathered at the prior dollar thresholds. However, managers of section 3(c)(1) funds should update their subscription agreements and other offering documents to reflect the new qualified client threshold for new investors who first invest after August 16, 2021. In addition, notably, existing investors in a 3(c)(1) fund of funds (investor fund) that first invests in a 3(c)(1) fund (investee fund) after the effectiveness of a new threshold would nevertheless each have to be qualified client under the new thresholds because the investor fund’s investment in the investee fund would count as a new advisory relationship.
Private fund advisers (hedge fund, private equity and venture capital fund managers) that rely on the federal ‘private fund adviser” exemption from investment adviser registration will not be impacted, including with respect to their 3(c)(1) funds. The Adviser’s Act performance compensation prohibition applies only to registered investment advisers but does not apply to investment advisers relying on the federal private fund adviser exemption (so called “exempt reporting advisers”). Certain states (e.g., California, Texas), however, mandate under their state equivalent private fund adviser exemptions that even exempt reporting advisers, other than exempt venture capital fund advisers, only charge a performance fee to qualified clients with respect to their 3(c)(1) funds. Therefore, while private fund advisers that qualify as “venture capital fund advisers” will not be impacted by the new qualified client thresholds, exempt reporting advisers that are private equity or hedge fund managers will have to comply with the qualified client standard in their 3(c)(1) funds under certain state laws.
Please contact your attorney at Pillsbury’s Investment Funds Group for additional information.
Today, the Securities and Exchange Commission announced it had finalized reforms under the Investment Advisers Act to modernize rules that govern investment adviser advertisements and payments to solicitors. The amendments create a single rule that replaces the current advertising and cash solicitation rules. The final rule is designed to comprehensively and efficiently regulate investment advisers’ marketing communications.
We urge our clients to consult Pillsbury’s comprehensive COVID-19 Resource Center for information regarding Responding to a Global Crisis, Business Interruption, Cybersecurity, Employer Concerns and other general matters related to the COVID-19 pandemic. We also recommend the following specific measures to mitigate risks of business interruption and regulatory noncompliance resulting from the COVID-19 pandemic.
Registered and Exempt Reporting Firms:
The deadline for the annual update of Form ADV is approaching. We have previously notified you regarding filing obligations that were due between January 1 and March 1. Below is a recommended compliance and filing deadline table addressing registered firms’ obligations for the remainder of the calendar year. Let us know if you need any assistance.
This is a reminder about the upcoming annual compliance deadlines that may or may not apply to you.
Please click HERE to open a summary chart of the filing deadlines.
Please feel free to contact us if you have questions or need assistance with any of these filings.
Pillsbury IFIM Group
In a press release issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission on December 20, 2018, the SEC’s Office of Compliance Inspections and Examinations (OCIE) announced its 2019 Examination Priorities.
This year’s examination priorities, although not exhaustive, are divided into 6 categories:
- Compliance and risk at registrants responsible for critical market infrastructure;
- Matters of importance to retail investors, including seniors and those saving for retirement;
- FINRA and MSRB;
- Digital assets;
- Cybersecurity; and
- Anti-money laundering programs.
Read the OCIE 2019 Examination Priorities in full HERE.
This is a reminder that the 2019 IARD account renewal obligation for investment advisers (including exempt reporting advisers) starts this November. An investment adviser must ensure that its IARD account is adequately funded to cover payment of all applicable registration renewal fees and notice filing fees.
Key Dates in the Renewal Process:
November 12, 2018 – Preliminary Renewal Statements which list advisers’ renewal fee amount are available for printing through the IARD system.
December 17, 2018 – Deadline for full payment of Preliminary Renewal Statements. In order for the payment to be posted to its IARD Renewal account by the December 17 deadline, an investment adviser should submit its preliminary renewal fee to FINRA through the IARD system by December 14, 2018.
December 28, 2018 – January 1, 2019 – IARD system shut down. The system is generally unavailable during this period.
January 2, 2019 – Final Renewal Statements are available for printing. Any additional fees that were not included in the Preliminary Renewal Statements will show in the Final Renewal Statements.
January 21, 2019 – Deadline for full payment of Final Renewal Statements.
Please contact us if you have questions.